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Questions 1- 8 are based on the following passage.
"I want to criticize the social system,
and to show it at work, at its most
intense." Virginia Woolf's provocative
statement about her intentions in
(5) writing Mrs. Dalloway has regularly been
ignored by the critics, since it
highlights an aspect of her literary
interests very different from the
traditional picture of the "poetic"
(10) novelist concerned with examining states
of reverie and vision and with following
the intricate pathways of individual
consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a
realistic as well as a poetic novelist,
(15) a satirist and social critic as well as
a visionary: literary critics' cavalier
dismissal of Woolf's social vision will
not withstand scrutiny.
In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged
(20) by the questions of how individuals are
shaped (or deformed) by their social
environments, how historical forces
impinge on people's lives, how class,
wealth, and gender help to determine
(25) people's fates. Most of her novels are
rooted in a realistically rendered social
setting and in a precise historical time.
Woolf's focus on society has not been
generally recognized because of her
(30) intense antipathy to propaganda in art.
The pictures of reformers in her novels
are usually satiric or sharply critical.
Even when Woolf is fundamentally
sympathetic to their causes, she portrays
(35) people anxious to reform their society
and possessed of a message or program
as arrogant or dishonest, unaware of
how their political ideas serve their
own psychological needs. (Her Writer's
(40) Diary notes: "the only honest people
are the artists," whereas "these social
reformers and philanthropists...harbor...
discreditable desires under the disguise
of loving their kind....") Woolf detested
(45) what she called "preaching" in fiction,
too, and criticized novelist D.H.Lawrence
(among others) for working by this method.
Woolf's own social criticism is
expressed in the language of observation
(50) rather than in direct commentary, since
for her, fiction is a contemplative, not
an active art. She describes phenomena
and provides materials for a judgment
about society and social issues; it is
(55) the reader's work to put the observations
together and understand the coherent
point of view behind them. As a moralist,
Woolf works by indirection, subtly under－
mining officially accepted mores, mocking,
(60) suggesting, calling into question, rather
than asserting, advocating, bearing
witness: hers is the satirist's art.
Woolf's literary models were acute
social observers like Checkhov and
(65) Chaucer. As she put it in The Common
Reader. "It is safe to say that not a
single law has been framed or one stone
set upon another because of anything
Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we
(70) read him, we are absorbing morality at
every pore." Like Chaucer, Woolf chose
to understand as well as to judge, to
know her society root and branch-a
decision curcial in order to produce art
(75) rather than polemic.
1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title
for the passage?
(A) Poetry and Satire as Influences on the Novels of Virginia
Woolf
(B) Virginia Woolf: Critic and Commentator on the
Twentieth-Century Novel
(C) Trends in Contemporary Reform Movements as a Key to
Understanding Virginia Woolf's Novels
(D) Society as Allegory for the Individual in the Novels of
Virginia Woolf
(E) Virginia Woolf's Novels: Critical Reflections on the
Individual and on Society
Explanation:
This question asks you to identify the most appropriate title for
the passage. You should consider the passage as a self-contained
unit, not as part of a larger work. E is the correct answer. The
topics of the passage is Woolf’s novels, and the author emphasizes
that the novels contain observations concerning “how individuals
are shaped (or deformed) by their social environments” (lines
20-22).
2. In the first paragraph of the passage, the author's attitude
toward the literary critics mentioned can best be described as
(A) disparaging
(B) ironic
(C) factious
(D) skeptical but resigned
(E) disappointed but hopeful
Explanation:
The literary critics discussed in the first paragraph ignored
Woolf’s intention to criticize society and saw her as a “poetic’
novelist unconcerned with the real world. This question asks you
to identify the tone of the remarks made by the author of the
passage concerning this assessment of Woolf’s work. A is the
correct choice. The author’s characterization of the critics’
assessment as “cavalier”(line 16) can be described as
“disparaging”
3. It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose Chaucer as
a literary model because she believed that
(A) Chaucer was the first English author to focus on society as a
whole as well as on individual characters
(B) Chaucer was an honest and forthright author, whereas novelists
like D, H, Lawrence did not sincerely wish to change society
(C) Chaucer was more concerned with understanding his society than
with calling its accepted mores into question
(D) Chaucer's writing was greatly, if subtly, effective in
influencing the moral attitudes of his readers
(E) her own novels would be more widely read if, like Chaucer, she
did not overtly and vehemently criticize contemporary society
Explanation:
The author discusses Woolf’s literary models, emphasizing Chaucer,
in the last paragraph. The reason why Woolf chose Chaucer as her
model is not directly stated in the passage but must be inferred
from the information there. D is the correct answer. Line 61
indicates that Woolf’s work as a moralist is subtle and done ‘ by
indirection.” Woolf’s statement that readers absorb morality at
every pore despite the fact that no laws were changed because of
Chaucer indicates that she believed Chaucer’s influence to be
subtle. Therefore, it is likely that it was Chaucer’s subtle
effectiveness that led Woolf to choose him as a model.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the most probable
reason Woolf realistically described the social setting in the
majority of her novels was that she
(A) was aware that contemporary literary critics considered the
novel to be the most realistic of literary genres
(B) was interested in the effect of a person's social milieu on
his or her character and actions
(C) needed to be as attentive to detail as possible in her novels
in order to support the arguments she advanced in them
(D) wanted to show that a painstaking fidelity in the
representation of reality did not in any way hamper the artist
(E) wished to prevent critics from charging that her novels were
written in an ambiguous and inexact style
Explanation:
In lines 25-28, the author states that Woolf’s novels presented
social settings realistically. The question asks why Woolf did so.
B is the best answer. In lines 19-22, Wooolf’s interest in the
effect of social environment on the individual is described. The
juxtaposition of these lines with the statement in lines 25-28
strongly suggests that Woolf realistically described social
settings because she was interested in their effect on character.
5. Which of the following phrases best expresses the sense of the
word "contemplative" as it is used in line 51 of the passage?
(A) Gradually elucidating the rational structures underlying
accepted mores
(B) Reflecting on issues in society without prejudice or emotional
commitment
(C) Avoiding the aggressive assertion of the author's perspective
to the exclusion of the reader's judgment
(D) Conveying a broad view of society as a whole rather than
focusing on an isolated individual consciousness
(E) Appreciating the world as the artist sees it rather than
judging it in moral terms
Explanation:
This question refers you to line 54 of the passage so that you can
evaluate the context in which the author uses the word
“contemplative.” You are to choose the definition of
“contemplative” that is closest in meaning to the use of the word
in that context. C is the best answer. Lines 51-55 suggest that a
contemplative art is expressed indirectly, rather than by
“aggressive assertion.” Lines 57-60 point out that Woolf, as a
contemplative novelist, encourages readers to make their own
judgments.
6. The author implies that a major element of the satirist's art
is the satirist's
(A) consistent adherence to a position of lofty disdain when
viewing the foibles of humanity
(B) insistence on the helplessness of individuals against the
social forces that seek to determine an individual's fate
(C) cynical disbelief that visionaries can either enlighten or
improve their societies
(D) fundamental assumption that some ambiguity must remain in a
work of art in order for it to reflect society and social mores
accurately
(E) refusal to indulge in polemic when presenting social mores to
readers for their scrutiny
Explanation:
This question asks you to identify an element that the author
thinks is important in the satirist’s art. The colon in line 65
indicates that the information in lines 61-65 describing Woolf’s
work leads to the statement, “hers is the satirist’s art.” This
statement indicates that conclusions about Woolf’s work as a
satirist can lead you to conclusions about the art of satirists in
general. E is the correct answer. Lines 61-65 describe Woolf’s
satirical art as providing the materials for judgments about mores
in an indirect, subtle, and nonassertive way, that is, in a
nonpolemical way.
7. The passage supplies information for answering which of the
following questions?
(A) Have literary critics ignored the social criticism inherent in
the work of Chekhov and Chaucer?
(B) Does the author believe that Woolf is solely an introspective
and visionary novelist?
(C) What are the social causes with which Woolf shows herself to
be sympathetic in her writings?
(D) Was D. H. Lawrence as concerned as Woolf was with creating
realistic settings for his novels?
(E) Does Woolf attribute more power to social environment or to
historical forces as shapers of a person's life?
Explanation:
This question asks you to determine which of the questions given
can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this
determination, you must first attempt to answer each question
using only the information presented by the author. B is the
correct answer. The answer to the question is “No”. In lines
13-15, the author characterizes Woolf as realistic and satirical
as well as introspective and visionary.
8. One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is
rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement
in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the
potential customer’s attention; memory does the rest, for it is
more important for sales that people know of a product than that
they know something about it.
Which of the following is assumed by the argument?
A. People can remember a product without having much information
about it.
B. Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve people’s
memories.
C. Attracting a potential customer’s attention is a simple matter.
D. The advertising industry knows little of substance about the
products it promotes.
E. Advertisements seldom tell the truth about a product.
Explanation:
The passage discusses how advertising usually need only draw
people’s attention to a product and need not provide any substance
for people to remember the product. Thus, the passage implies that
people can remember a product without having much information
about it, and A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. The passage suggests that if advertisements draw
people’s attention to a product, the people are more apt to
remember the product. The advertisement is not said to improve
people’s memories, only to draw people’s attention so they will
use their existing memories.
C is also incorrect. The passage says that all one usually needs
to do is attract a potential customer’s attention. It does not say
how easy or difficult that is.
The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage says that it is
rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement
but does not suggest that the advertising industry knows little of
substance about the product.
The last answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not suggest
that advertisements make false claims about products.
9. The company announced that its profits declined much less in the second
quarter than analysts had expected it to and its business will improve in
the second half of the year.
(A) had expected it to and its business will improve
(B) had expected and that its business would improve
(C) expected it would and that it will improve its business
(D) expected them to and its business would improve
(E) expected and that it will have improved its business
B, the best choice, avoids errors of agreement, correctly uses the parallel
construction that x and that y, and uses would rather than will to refer to a
promised but uncertain future event. In A and C, singular it after expected has
no grammatical referent: its antecedent cannot be The company, but rather must
be the plural profits. Choices A and C also contain errors of verb form, using
will where would is required. Choices A and D fail to maintain parallel
structure: properly formed, the construction would have that after expected to
parallel that after announced. Furthermore, in D, the addition of them to is
unnecessary. Choice E illogically uses the future perfect will have improved to
suggest completion of an action that will be continuous in the second half of
the year.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the
answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)
10. Affirmative action is good business. So asserted the
National Association of Manufacturers while urging retention of an
executive order requiring some federal contractors to set
numerical goals for hiring minorities and women. “Diversity in
work force participation has produced new ideas in management,
product development, and marketing,” the association claimed.
The association’s argument as it is presented in the passage above
would be most strengthened if which of the following were true?
A. The percentage of minority and women workers in business has
increased more slowly than many minority and women’s groups would
prefer.
B. Those businesses with the highest percentages of minority and
women workers are those that have been the most innovative and
profitable.
C. Disposable income has been rising as fast among minorities and
women as among the population as a whole.
D. The biggest growth in sales in the manufacturing sector has
come in industries that market the most innovative products.
E. Recent improvements in management practices have allowed many
manufacturers to experience enormous gains in worker productivity.
Explanation: If, as B says, businesses with the highest
percentages of minorities and women have been the most profitable,
there is reason to believe that, because it increases the level of
participation of women and minorities in the work force,
affirmative action is good business. Thus, B is the best answer. A
suggests that minority and women’s groups have reason to support
affirmative action, but it does not indicate that affirmative
action is good business. Because there is no indication that the
improvement in disposable income noted in C is due to affirmative
action, C does not strengthen the argument given for affirmative
action. D and E address growth in sales and improvements in
management; neither, however, asserts that these benefits are due
to affirmative action.
11. The gyrfalcon, an Arctic bird of prey, has survived a close brush with
extinction; its numbers are now five times greater than when the use of DDT
was sharply restricted in the early 1970's.
(A) extinction; its numbers are now five times greater than
(B) extinction; its numbers are now five times more than
(C) extinction, their numbers now fivefold what they were
(D) extinction, now with fivefold the numbers they had
(E) extinction, now with numbers five times greater than
A, the best choice, uses a singular pronoun, its, to refer to the singular
antecedent The gyrfalcon, and it properly uses the construction its numbers are
now ... greater than. In B, the construction its numbers are ... more is not
idiomatic: there are more birds, but not more numbers. Choices C and D use a
plural pronoun, their or they, to refer to a grammatically singular antecedent,
The gyrfalcon. Choices D and E wrongly use a phrase introduced by now with to
modify The gyrfalcon. In both choices, the phrase confusingly seems to parallel
with extinction; a new clause with a present tense verb is needed to state what
the gyrfalcon's numbers are now.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices
given. (Critical Reasoning)
12. Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the
bill for a new recycling law that would protect the environment
from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the
Regionalist party because she supports the bill.
Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is
invalidly drawn?
A. Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial
interests on several other issues.
B. Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the
environment.
C. Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws
have failed.
D. It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not
oppose the bill for a new recycling law.
E. Ellen has attended programs and distributed literature prepared
by the Regionalist party.
Explanation:
The fact that only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose
the bill does not imply that all members of the Regionalist party
would oppose the bill. Based on the initial statement, Ellen may
or may not be a member of the Regionalist party if she supports
the bill. For the conclusion to be valid, the initial statement
would have to read, “All members of the Regionalist party would
oppose the bill for a new recycling law…” Thus, the choice of D
makes the relevant logical point.
The first three answer choices are incorrect. Each presents at
best a piece of background information without being specifically
related to the question of whether all Regionalist party members
would oppose the bill. The last answer choice is also incorrect.
Ellen’s attending programs and distributing literature prepared by
the Regionalist party might appear to make it likely that the
conclusion is false. But suggesting that the conclusion might be
false does not help show why the conclusion is invalidly drawn.
13. Three out of every four automobile owners in the United States also own a
bicycle.
(A) Three out of every four automobile owners in the United States also own
a bicycle.
(B) Out of every four, three automobile owners in the United States also owns a
bicycle.
(C) Bicycles are owned by three out of every four owners of automobiles in the
United States.
(D) In the United States, three out of every four automobile owners owns
bicycles.
(E) Out of every four owners of automobiles in the United States, bicycles are
also owned by three.
A, the best choice, is concise, idiomatic, and maintains subject-verb agreement.
In B, Out of every four, three is unidiomatic. The singular verb owns does not
agree with its plural subject, three ... owners. The passive construction in C
(Bicycles are owned by) is cumbersome and does not contribute meaningfully to
the sentence. The shift to plural Bicycles detracts from clarity by suggesting
that multiple bicycles are owned by each person in question. In D, the singular
owns does not agree with its plural subject three... owners. Furthermore, the
plural bicycles detracts from clarity by suggesting that multiple bicycles are
owned by each person in question. In E, the phrase beginning Out of every four
... cannot properly modify bicycles, and the passive construction (bicycles are
also owned) is awkward and does not contribute meaningfully to the sentence. The
plural nouns bicycles and automobiles suggest imprecisely that each person owns
more than one of each.
14. Analysts blamed May's sluggish retail sales on unexciting merchandise as
well as the weather, colder and wetter than was usual in some regions. which
slowed sales of barbecue grills and lawn furniture.
(A) colder and wetter than was usual in some regions, which slowed
(B) which was colder and wetter than usual in some regions, slowing
(C) since it was colder and wetter than usually in some regions, which slowed
(D) being colder and wetter than usually in some regions, slowing
(E) having been colder and wetter than was usual in some regions and slowed
Choice B is the best answer. It is concise and idiomatic, and which has a clear
referent, the weather. In A, the insertion of was is unnecessary, and the
referent of which is not clear because regions, not weather, is the nearest
noun. In C, the adjective usual is needed in place of the adverb usually, and
the referent of which is unclear because regions, not weather, is the nearest
noun. In D and E, the verb phrases (being colder ..., having been colder . ..)
do not refer as clearly to the noun weather as the pronoun which does. Choice D
needs the adjective usual in place of the adverb usually, while choice E fails
to maintain parallelism in verb tense (having been... and slowed).
Questions 15- 18 are based on the following passage.
It is a popular misconception
that nuclear fusion power is free
of radioactivity; in fact, the
deuterium-tritium reaction that nuclear
(5) scientists are currently exploring with
such zeal produces both alpha particles
and neutrons, (The neutrons are used to
produce tritium from a lithium blanket
surrounding the reactor.) Another common
(10) misconception is that nuclear fusion
power is a virtually unlimited source of
energy because of the enormous quantity
of deuterium in the sea. Actually, its
limits are set by the amount of
(15) available lithium, which is about as
plentiful as uranium in the Earth's
crust. Research should certainly
continue on controlled nuclear fusion,but
no energy program should be premised
(20) on its existence until it has proven
practical. For the immediate future, we
must continue to use hydroelectric
power, nuclear fission, and fossil fuels
to meet our energy needs. The energy
(25) sources already in major use are in
major use for good reason.
15. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) criticize scientists who believe that the deuterium-tritium
fusion reaction can be made feasible as an energy source
(B) admonish scientists who have failed to correctly calculate the
amount of lithium
(C) defend the continued short-term use of fossil fuels as a major
energy source
(D) caution against uncritical embrace of nuclear fusion power as
a major energy source
(E) correct the misconception that nuclear fusion power is
entirely free of radioactivity
Explanation:
This question asks you to determine the primary purpose of the
passage. In order to do this, you must take into account all of
the information in the passage. D is the best answer. The author
mentions several reasons why nuclear fusion should not be accepted
as a major source of energy at this time and recommends continued
critical evaluation of its potential.
16. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes
which of the following about the current state of public awareness
concerning nuclear fusion power?
(A) The public has been deliberately misinformed about the
advantages and disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(B) The public is unaware of the principal advantage of nuclear
fusion over nuclear fission as an energy source.
(C) The public's awareness of the scientific facts concerning
nuclear fusion power is somewhat distorted and incomplete.
(D) The public is not interested in increasing its awareness of
the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(E) The public is aware of the disadvantages of nuclear fusion
power but not of its advantages.
Explanation:
This question asks you to use the specific statements made in the
passage to determine what the author believes about public
awareness of nuclear fusion power. C is the correct answer. The
author specifically mentions two misconceptions about nuclear
fusion that he believes are generally held, indicating that he
believes that people’s knowledge of the scientific facts is
incomplete.
17. The passage provides information that would answer which of
the following questions?
(A) What is likely to be the principal source of deuterium for
nuclear fusion power?
(B) How much incidental radiation is produced in the
deuterium-tritium fusion reaction?
(C) Why are scientists exploring the deuterium-tritium fusion
reaction with such zeal?
(D) Why must the tritium for nuclear fusion be synthesized from
lithium?
(E) Why does the deuterium-tritium reaction yield both alpha
particles and neutrons?
Explanation:
This question asks you to determine which of the questions given
can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this
determination, you must first attempt to answer each question
using only the information presented by the author. A is the
correct answer. The answer to the question posed in this choice is
“the sea.” The passage states that it is commonly believed that
there is an enormous quantity of deuterium in the sea; the author
does not deny this.
18. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear
scientists is most directly suggested in the passage?
(A) Nuclear scientists are not themselves aware of all of the
facts surrounding the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction.
(B) Nuclear scientists exploring the decuterium-tritium reaction
have overlooked key facts in their eagerness to prove nuclear
fusion practical.
(C) Nuclear scientists may have overestimated the amount of
lithium actually available in the Earth's crust.
(D) Nuclear scientists have not been entirely dispassionate in
their investigation of the deuterium-tritium reaction.
(E) Nuclear scientists have insufficiently investigated the
lithium-to-tritium reaction in nuclear fusion.
Explanation:
The author mentions nuclear scientists only once, near the
beginning of the passage. This question asks you to determine what
the passage most directly suggests about them. D is the correct
answer. The author’s statement that scientists are studying the
deuterium-tritium reaction with “zeal” suggests that he believes
that they are not dispassionate.
19. Balding is much more common among White males than males of other
races.
(A) than
(B) than among
(C) than is so of
(D) compared to
(E) in comparison with
B, the best choice, correctly uses the idiomatic construction more common among
x than among y. In A, the comparison is not parallel and not clear; one
illogical but available reading is that balding is more common among White males
than are males of other races. To be clear, the sentence should read more common
among White males than among .... In C, the phrase is so cannot refer to the
process Balding, and more common among ... than is so lacks parallelism. In D
and E, the phrases more common... compared to and more common ... in comparison
with are redundant and unidiomatic. The correct form is more common than.
20. The bank holds $3 billion in loans that are seriously delinquent or in such
trouble that they do not expect payments when due.
(A) they do not expect payments when
(B) it does not expect payments when it is
(C) it does not expect payments to be made when they are
(D) payments are not to be expected to be paid when
(E) payments are not expected to be paid when they will be
Choice C, the best answer, expresses its meaning clearly and directly, with
subject-verb agreement throughout. Choice A is incorrect: although in some
dialects of English a bank is treated as a plural entity, in this case The bank
holds clearly establishes that bank is grammatically singular, and thus it
cannot be referred to with the plural pronoun they. Furthermore, the structure
of they do not expect payments when due makes the modification of due unclear.
In B, it correctly refers to the singular bank, but payments when it is due
introduces an agreement error between plural payments and singular it. In D and
E, the use of the passive (payments are not... expected to be paid) does not
contribute meaningfully to the sentence and thus is unwarranted, while
payments... to be paid is redundant and unidiomatic. Also, are not to be in D
and will be in E inappropriately shift action to the future.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices
given. (Critical Reasoning)
21. Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years
old. It is clear from this example that the last two digits of a
person’s birth year will be the same as the last two digits of the
year of that person’s ninth birthday, except that the position of
the digits will be reversed.
Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions
made?
A. The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do
not end in two zeroes.
B. The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed
in the generalization based on it.
C. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which
the last digit is one greater than the second-to-last digit.
D. The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of
the generalization is already presupposed.
E. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which
the last digit is greater than five.
Explanation:
The generalization is only true for some birth years. A good
criticism of the generalization would show when the generalization
is not true. C does just that and thus is the correct answer.
A is incorrect. It is false that the generalization holds for all
years that do not end in two zeros. For example, 1970 is a birth
year that does not end in two zeros. However, 1970 plus nine
equals 1979, and hence this is a case for which the generalization
is not valid. Since this answer choice is false, it cannot be a
good criticism of the assertions.
The second answer choice is also incorrect. In the example, the
last two digits of the person’s birth year-67-are the same as the
last two digits of the year of the person’s ninth
birthday-76-except reversed. Thus, the example does in fact
exhibit the same principle as the generalization.
The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The difference between 1976
and 1967 is nine. The correctness of the first statement depends
only on this fact and the fact that Roberta was born in 1967 and
was still alive in 1976. Thus, the truth of the generalization is
not presupposed.
The last answer choice is also incorrect. Consider birth year
1923. a person born in 1923 would have been nine in 1932 and the
generalization holds. So E is false.
22. The nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote the only eyewitness account of the
great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.
(A) The nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote the only eyewitness account of the
great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.
(B) To the historian Tacitus, the nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote two letters,
being the only eyewitness accounts of the great eruption of Vesuvius.
(C) The only eyewitness account is in two letters by the nephew of Pliny the
Elder writing to the historian Tacitus an account of the great eruption of
Vesuvius.
(D) Writing the only eyewitness account, Pliny the Elder's nephew accounted for
the great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.
(E) In two letters to the historian Tacitus, the nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote
the only eyewitness account of the great eruption of Vesuvius.
E, the best choice, conveys its meaning clearly, without ambiguity, and uses
straightforward syntax. In A, the placement of the phrase in two letters to the
historian Tacitus generates ambiguity: the nonsensical suggestion is that the
eruption of Vesuvius took place in the letters themselves. In B, the verb phrase
that begins being the only eyewitness accounts modifies the subject of the
preceding clause, suggesting nonsensically that the nephew of Pliny the Elder
himself was the eyewitness accounts. Furthermore, To the historian Tacitus, the
nephew... wrote two letters is unnecessarily clumsy. In C, the meaning of the
sentence is unclear (The only eyewitness account of what?), the repetition of
account is clumsy, and the syntax is highly convoluted (... in two letters by
the nephew of Pliny the Elder writing to the historian Tacitus an account...).
In D, Writing the only eyewitness account, Pliny the Elder's nephew accounted is
redundant, and the placement of in two letters to the historian Tacitus
generates ambiguity, suggesting under one available reading that the eruption
took place in the letters.
23. In A.D. 391. resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the
ancient world at Alexandria, later generations lost all but the
lliad and Odyssey among Greek epics, most of the poetry of Pindar and
Sappho, and dozens of plays by Aeschylus and Euripides.
(A) resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the ancient world
at Alexandria,
(B) the destroying of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria
resulted and
(C) because of the result of the destruction of the library at Alexandria, the
largest of the ancient world,
(D) as a result of the destruction of the library at Alexandria, the largest of
the ancient world,
(E) Alexandria's largest library of the ancient world was destroyed, and the
result was
D, the best choice, uses the idiomatic as a result o/and conveys information
unambiguously. In A, the phrase that begins resulting from cannot properly
modify later generations. The word order of the largest library of the ancient
world at Alexandria generates ambiguity: one possible reading is that the
ancient world was located at Alexandria. Choice B is incorrect. Although an
"-ing" verb such as destroying can sometimes act as a noun, in this case the
usage is strained. Again, at Alexandria is ambiguous (as in choice A). Choice B
also uses resulted ungrammatically and produces a run-on sentence (In A.D. 391,
the destroying... resulted and later generations lost). In C, the phrase because
of the result of is unidiomatic as well as redundant. The structure of E
illogically suggests that there was more than one largest library of the ancient
world and that only Alexandria's was destroyed. Furthermore, the result was
should instead be the result was that.
24. Scientists believe that unlike the males of most species of moth, the
male whistling moths of Nambung, Australia, call female moths to them by the
use of acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and they attract their
mates during the day, rather than at night.
(A) by the use of acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and they attract
(B) by the use of acoustical signals instead of using olfactory ones, and
attracting
(C) by using acoustical signals, not using olfactory ones, and by attracting
(D) using acoustical signals, rather than olfactory ones, and attract
(E) using acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and attracting
Choice D, the best answer, is concise, maintains parallel structure, and clearly
conveys the comparisons being made between the two types of moth. In A and E,
the comparison between most male moths and the male whistling moth is not clear.
The use of but not does not clearly convey that most other moths use olfactory
signals; rather than would be preferable, as well as parallel to rather than at
night. In A, the phrase by the use of is unnecessarily wordy, and the insertion
of they is not required. In E, the final verb should be attract (parallel to
call), not attracting (parallel to using). Choice B violates parallelism with by
the use of... instead of using, as well as with call... and attracting. Choice C
distorts the meaning of the original with its suggestion that male whistling
moths call female moths to them both by using acoustical signals and by
attracting their mates during the day. The insertion of using in not using
olfactory ones is unnecessary.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices
given. (Critical Reasoning)
25. The state with the greatest fraction of its population in
urban areas, if the urban areas are considered to include the
suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but
California is exceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its
population lives in urban areas. Geographically, however,
California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban
areas.
If all of the statements are true, which of the following is best
supported on the basis of them?
A. No state has a smaller fraction of its population in rural
areas than California has.
B. The current rate of population growth in California’s urban
areas exceeds that current rate of population growth in
California’s rural areas.
C. In California 96 percent of the population lives on 9 percent
of the land.
D. No state has a smaller area devoted to urban settlement than
California has.
E. California’s population density is among the highest of all
states in the United States.
The passage states that of all the states, California has the
greatest fraction of its population (91 out of 100) living in
urban areas. That means only 9 out of every 100 California
residents live in rural areas. The greatest fraction of any other
states’ population living in urban areas, to be smaller than
California’s fraction, must be 90 or fewer out of every 100. That
means that, in every other state, 10 or more out of every 100
residents live in rural areas. Since 9 out of every 100 is smaller
than 10 or more out of every 100, so A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. In order to decide whether this statement is true,
it is necessary to know about rates of population growth. No such
information is provided in the passage. The third answer choice is
also incorrect. Since 96 percent of the land is outside urban
areas, 4 percent is inside urban areas. Thus, 91 percent of the
population lives on 4 percent of the land. The fourth answer
choice is incorrect. The passage does not provide enough
information to determine whether this statement is true or false.
No comparison is made between the amount of land area in
California devoted to urban settlement and the amount of land area
in other states devoted to urban settlement. E is incorrect. The
passage does not provide sufficient information to determine
whether this statement is true or false. Information on the actual
size of the population as compared to total land area of
California and other states would be necessary to make a judgment
about population density in these states.
26. If the airspace around centrally located airports were
restricted to commercial airliners and only those private planes
equipped with radar, most of the private-plane traffic would be
forced to sue outlying airfields. Such a reduction in the amount
of private-plane traffic would reduce the risk of midair collision
around the centrally located airports.
The conclusion draw in the first sentence depends on which of the
following assumptions?
A. Outlying airfields would be as convenient as centrally located
airports for most pilots of private planes.
B. Most outlying airfields are not equipped to handle
commercial-airline traffic.
C. Most private planes that use centrally located airports are not
equipped with radar.
D. Commercial airliners are at greater risk of becoming involved
in midair collisions than are private planes.
E. A reduction in the risk of midair collision would eventually
lead to increases in commercial-airline traffic.
Explanation:
The first sentence concludes that prohibiting private planes that
are not radar-equipped from centrally located airports would force
most private planes away from those airports. This conclusion
cannot be true unless it is true that, as C says, most private
planes that use these airports are not radar-equipped. Therefore,
the first sentence’s conclusion assumes this choice, which is thus
the best answer. The conclusion need not assume that outlying
airfields are convenient for private planes (A), since the
restrictions would give planes that are not radar equipped no
choice. The conclusion concerns only how the radar requirement
would affect the volume of private plane traffic, so B, D and E,
which deal with commercial planes and with risk of midair
collision, need not be assumed.
27. In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of
farmers continued to increase, but at a rate lower than that of
the general population.
Which of the following statements directly contradicts the
information presented above?
A. The number of farmers in the general population increased
slightly in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
B. The rate of growth of the United States labor force and the
rate of growth of the general population rose simultaneously in
the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
C. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force
remained constant in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
D. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force
decreased from 64 percent in 1850 to 49 percent in 1880.
E. The proportion of farmers in the general population increased
from 68 percent in 1850 to 72 percent in 1880.
Explanation:
The passage indicates that the proportion of farmers in the
general population decreased from 1850 to 1880. the fifth answer
choice says exactly the opposite-that this proportion increased;
therefore, it contradicts the passage and is the correct response.
A is incorrect. The passage also indicates that the number of
farmers increased between 1850 and 1880, and thus agrees with this
choice. B is also incorrect. The passage does not tell us about
the rate of growth of the labor force. It can be inferred from the
passage that the general population grew, but this choice agrees
with, rather than contradicts, this conclusion. The choice of C is
not the correct answer. We cannot draw any conclusions about the
proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage alone.
The fourth is also incorrect. We cannot draw any conclusions about
the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage
alone.
28. The British sociologist and activist Barbara Wootton once noted as a
humorous example of income maldistribution that the elephant that gave rides
to children at the Whipsnade Zoo was earning annually exactly what she then
earned as director of adult education for London.
(A) that the elephant that gave rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo was
earning
(B) that the elephant, giving rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo, had been
earning
(C) that there was an elephant giving rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo,
and it earned
(D) the elephant that gave rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo and was
earning
(E) the elephant giving rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo and that it
earned
Choice A, the best answer, uses the idiomatic construction noted... that and
clearly focuses on the salient information-- a comparison of annual earnings. In
B, the structure of noted... that the elephant, giving rides ..., had been
earning falsely implies that the reader already knows about the elephant--that
is, that the existence of this particular elephant is not new information. Also,
the past perfect had been improperly places the elephant's earning in the past,
prior to Wootton's; consistent verb tense is needed to show that the actions are
simultaneous. Choice C may be faulted for distortion of meaning and diminished
clarity because it suggests that the point of Wootton's example was the
elephant's very existence; comparative earnings are presented (after and) as
incidental detail. Choice D is awkward and inexact; the whole circumstance that
Wootton "noted" is best expressed in a clause that begins with that. Choice E
does not use the idiomatic construction noted that x; therefore, and that it
earned has no parallel construction to which it can be joined.
29. Five fledgling sea eagles left their nests in western Scotland this summer,
bringing to 34 the number of wild birds successfully raised since
transplants from Norway began in 1975.
(A) bringing
(B) and brings
(C) and it brings
(D) and it brought
(E) and brought
Choice A is best. The "-ing" (present participle) form introduces action that is
simultaneous with the action of the main clause; i.e., bringing indicates that
the number of wild birds became 34 when the sea eagles left their nests. In B,
there is no subject available for the singular present-tense verb brings. The
subject cannot be eagles, since that noun is plural and the action of its verb
left is in the past. Neither C nor D contains a grammatical referent for it. In
E, the use of and brought implies two discrete actions on the part of the
eagles, and thus lacks the clarity of the best answer, where bringing
underscores the cause-and-effect nature of the situation.
30. According to some economists, the July decrease in unemployment so that
it was the lowest in two years
suggests that the gradual improvement in the job market is continuing.
(A) so that it was the lowest in two years
(B) so that it was the lowest two-year rate
(C) to what would be the lowest in two years
(D) to a two-year low level
(E) to the lowest level in two years
E, the best choice, employs idiomatic construction and uses the precise decrease
... to the lowest level. Choices A and B are faulty in construction. The
adverbial so that can modify verbs (e.g., decreased) but not nouns (e.g., the
decrease). The meaning of lowest two-year rate in B is unclear; in any event the
phrase distorts the intended meaning of lowest in two years. In A and B, the
referent of it is unclear, as the pronoun could refer to either unemployment or
decrease. Choice C improperly uses would be to describe a situation that is
presented as a current and known fact. Also, there is no noun for lowest to
modify; clearly "the lowest decrease" is not intended. In D, the phrase two-year
low level is unidiomatic, as well as unclear in its intended meaning.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the
answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)
31. The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax
returns showing a net income of more than $ 100 million accounted
for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources
reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable
income from foreign sources came from the 200 returns reporting
income from 10 or more countries.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also
be true?
A. Most of the total taxable income earned by corporations with
net income above $ 100 million was earned from foreign sources.
B. Wealthy individuals with large personal incomes reported 47
percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources.
C. Income from foreign sources amounted to between 53 and 60
percent of all reported taxable income.
D. Some of the corporations with net income above $ 100 million
reported income from 10 or more countries.
E. Most of the tax returns showing income from 10 or more
countries reported net income of more than $ 100 million.
Explanation:
If 38 tax returns in one category account for 53 percent of the
total taxable income from foreign sources, and if 200 tax returns
in another category account for 60 percent of the same amount,
then the two categories must overlap to some extent. Only if the
two percentages, added together, amounted to 100 percent or less
is there not necessarily any overlap. Here, the two percentages
add up to 113 percent. The answer choice that expresses an overlap
between the category of corporations with a net income of above $
100 million and that of corporations with income from 10 or more
countries is D, which is thus the correct answer.
A is not correct. Whereas corporations with net incomes of above $
100 million account for more than half of the total taxable income
from foreign sources, we cannot tell from the information given
what proportion of their own total incomes from all sources is
derived from incomes from foreign sources. The second answer
choice is incorrect. All we can infer is that 47 percent was
reported by taxpayers other than corporations with net incomes
above $ 100 million. These taxpayers could be other corporations
with somewhat lower incomes. C is not the correct answer choice.
The figures of 53 and 60 percent refer to percentages of total
taxable income from foreign sources. Neither these nor any other
figures in the passage refer to or imply any percentages of all
reported taxable income. E, the last choice, is also incorrect.
Since there are only 38 corporations with reported net incomes of
more than $ 100 million, but 200 taxpayers with income from 10 or
more countries, at the very most somewhat less than 20 percent of
those 200 taxpayers could report net incomes of more than $ 100
million.
Questions 32- 34 are based on the following passage.
Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong.
Jacksonian America was not a fluid,
egalitarian society where individual
wealth and poverty were ephemeral
(5) conditions. At least to argues E. Pessen
in his iconoclastic study of the very
rich in the United States between 1825
and 1850.
Pessen does present a quantity of
(10) examples, together with some
refreshingly intelligible statistics, to
establish the existence of an
inordinately wealthy class. Though
active in commerce or the professions,
(15) most of the wealthy were not self-made,
but had inherited family fortunes. In no
sense mercurial, these great fortunes
survived the financial panics that
destroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in
(20) several cities the wealthiest one
percent constantly increased its share
until by 1850 it owned half of the
community's wealth. Although these
observations are true, Pessen
(25) overestimates their importance by
concluding from them that the undoubted
progress toward inequality in the late
eighteenth century continued in the
Jacksonian period and that the United
(30) States was a class-ridden, plutocratic
society even before industrialization.
32. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the
following were true of the very wealthy in the United States
between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT:
(A) They formed a distinct upper class.
(B) Many of them were able to increase their holdings.
(C) Some of them worked as professionals or in business.
(D) Most of them accumulated their own fortunes.
(E) Many of them retained their wealth in spite of financial
upheavals.
Explanation:
The author of the passage discusses the work of another author,
Pessen. This question asks what statements the author of the
passage attributes to pessen concerning the very wealthy in the
United States between 1825 and 1850. You are to identify the one
statement that CANNOT be correctly attributed to Pessen.
Therefore, you must first determine which of the statements given
can be attributed to Pessen. D is the correct answer. According to
the second paragraph, “most of the wealthy were not self-made, but
had inherited family fortunes.” Therefore, they did NOT accumulate
their own fortunes.
33.The author's attitude toward Pessen's presentation of
statistics can be best described as
(A) disapproving
(B) shocked
(C) suspicious
(D) amused
(E) laudatory
Explanation:
To answer this question, you must determine the attitude of the
author of the passage toward Pessen’s presentation of statistics.
The author of the passage discusses Pessen’s statistics near the
beginning of the second paragraph. He calls Pessen’s statistics
“refreshingly intelligible.” E is the correct answer. The words
“refreshingly intelligible” can be taken as praise, so “laudatory”
describes the author’s attitude toward Pessen’s presentation of
statistics.
34. Which of the following best states the author's main point?
(A) Pessen's study has overturned the previously established view
of the social and economic structure of early nineteenth-century
America.
(B) Tocqueville's analysis of the United States in the Jacksonian
era remains the definitive account of this period.
(C) Pessen's study is valuable primarily because it shows the
continuity of the social system in the United States throughout
the nineteenth century.
(D) The social patterns and political power of the extremely
wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 are well
documented.
(E) Pessen challenges a view of the social and economic system in
the United States from 1825 to 1850, but he draws conclusions that
are incorrect.
Explanation:
This question asks you to identify the main point that the author
of the passage makes. To do this, you must separate the author’s
description of Pessen’s work and views from the author’s
evaluation of Pessen’s work.. E is the correct answer. According
to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocqueville’s view.
According to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocquevile’s
view. According to the second paragraph, Pessen’s conclusions are
incorrect.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the
answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)
35. The greater the division of labor in an economy, the
greater the need for coordination. This is because increased
division of labor entails a larger number of specialized
producers, which results in a greater burden on managers and,
potentially, in a greater number of disruptions of supply and
production.
There is always more division of labor in market economies than in
planned economies.
If all of the statements given are true, the which of the
following must also be true?
A. Disruptions of supply and production are more frequent in
planned economies than in market economies.
B. There are more specialized producers in planned economies than
in market economies.
C. The need for coordination in market economies is greater than
in planned economies.
D. A manager’s task is easier in a market economy than in a
planned economy.
E. Division of labor functions more effectively in market
economies than in planned economies.
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. If, as the first statement claims,
greater division of labor entails a greater need for coordination
and if, as the second statement claims, there is always more
division of labor in market economies than in planned economies,
then it must be true that the need for coordination in market
economies is greater than in planned economies.
The first choice is incorrect. If the statements are true, then it
is possible, and even expected, that disruptions of supply and
production are NOT more frequent in planned economies than in
market economies. The statements suggest that since there is
always more division of labor in market economies than in planned
economies, there is potentially a greater number of disruptions in
market economies than in planned economies. B is not correct. One
would expect there to be fewer, not more, specialized producers in
planned economies than in market economies, other things being
equal. This is because, according to the statements, there is
always more division of labor in market economies than in planned
economies and because increased division of labor entails a larger
number of specialized producers. The fourth answer choice is
incorrect. The statement lead to the conclusion that a manager’s
task would be harder, not easier, in a market economy than in a
planned economy. This is because the increased division of labor
that exists in a market economy entails a larger number of
specialized producers. The last answer choice, E is also
incorrect. The statement that division of labor functions more
effectively in market economies than in planned economies does not
follow from the statements given. The statements imply that such
effectiveness is dependent on the amount of coordination
available, but no information concerning that amount is given.
36. Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940,
author Bharati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to
the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop.
(A) Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940,
author Bharati Mukherjee has
(B) Having been a United States citizen since 1988, she was born in Calcutta in
1940; author Bharati Mukherjee
(C) Born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee became a United States
citizen in 1988; she has
(D) Being born in Calcutta in 1940 and having been a United States citizen since
1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
(E) Having been born in Calcutta in 1940 and being a United States citizen since
1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
C is best. The first clause presents its information clearly and in logical
sequence. The use of a semicolon to set apart the remaining information further
assists the clarity of the sentence. In A, the phrase Being... and born violates
parallelism and oddly presents its information in reverse chronological order.
Choice B illogically suggests that upon her birth in 1940, Mukherjee had already
been a United States citizen since 1988. In D and E, the use of progressive
forms (Being born, having been. Having been born, and being) implies continuous
action, a notion that is not appropriate to the facts being presented. Also,
these forms do not establish a logical time sequence, suggesting, for example,
that Mukherjee had been a United States citizen before she lived in England and
Canada and first came to the United States.
37. Initiated five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World on
Columbus Day 1992. Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search
for extraterrestrial intelligence.
(A) Initiated five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World on
Columbus Day 1992, Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search
for extraterrestrial intelligence.
(B) Initiated on Columbus Day 1992, five centuries after Europeans arrived in
the New World, a $100 million investment in the search for -extraterrestrial
intelligence was pledged by Project SETI.
(C) Initiated on Columbus Day 1992, five centuries after Europeans arrived in
the New World, Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search for
extraterrestrial intelligence.
(D) Pledging a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial
intelligence, the . initiation of Project SETI five centuries after Europeans
arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992.
(E) Pledging a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial
intelligence five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World, on
Columbus Day 1992, the initiation of Project SETI took place.
Choice C, the best answer, is a complete sentence, and its
(initial structures correctly modify Project SETI so that there is no ambiguity
regarding when events took place. Choice A is faulty because its construction
illogically suggests that
Europeans arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992 and that Project SETI
was initiated five centuries thereafter. In B, Initiated on Columbus Day ...
illogically modifies a $100 million investment, suggesting that it was the
investment itself, not Project SETI, that was initiated. In D and E, the initial
phrase beginning with Pledging in both cases illogically modifies the initiation
of Project SETI; it is not the project's initiation, but the project itself,
that pledged a certain investment. Furthermore, D is a sentence fragment, while
E may be faulted for ambiguity. The phrase five centuries after could modify
either Pledging or the search, and on Columbus Day 1992 could refer to the date
of either the initiation of Project SETI or the arrival of Europeans in the New
World.
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices
given. (Critical Reasoning)
38. The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial
life is on a planet beyond our solar system. The Milky Way galaxy
alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be
accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them
suitable abodes of life.
The statement presupposes which of the following?
A. Living creatures on another planet would probably have the same
appearance as those on Earth.
B. Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system.
C. If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an
inevitable consequence.
D. More than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an
Earth-like planet.
E. It is likely that life on another planet would require
conditions similar to those on Earth.
Explanation:
In stating that planets may exist that are similar enough to Earth
to make them suitable for supporting life, the author implicitly
rules out planets dissimilar to Earth as likely to support life.
The assumption underlying the statement is that life on another
planet is likely to require conditions similar to those on Earth.
Therefore, E is the correct answer.
A is not correct. The statement presupposes nothing about the
appearance of extraterrestrial life. B is incorrect. The statement
implies that it is relatively unlikely that life exists on other
planets in our solar system, but it makes no presupposition
absolutely ruling out the possibility that such life exists. The
answer choice of C is incorrect. Although the statement suggests
that there is the greatest chance for life when physical
conditions are appropriate, it leaves open the possibility that no
life will exist even with appropriate conditions. D is also
incorrect. The statement says that it is possible that more than
one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like
planet, but it does not presuppose that there are actually any
such suns.
39. The direction in which the Earth and the other solid planets --Mercury,
Venus, and Mars -- spins were determined from collisions with giant
celestial bodies in the early history of the Solar System.
(A) spins were determined from
(B) spins were determined because of
(C) spins was determined through
(D) spin was determined by
(E) spin was determined as a result of
D, the best choice, is clear and concise, and uses correct subject-verb
agreement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they use the singular verb
spins for the plural subject Earth and the other solid planets--Mercury, Venus,
and Mars. Choices A and B furthermore incorrectly use the plural were, which
does not agree with the singular subject The direction. To express cause,
determined by is idiomatic; the prepositions from and through in A and C are not
idiomatic. The phrase determined because of in B is redundant. In E, the phrase
determined as a result of is redundant, awkward, and unidiomatic.
40. Thomas Eakins' powerful style and his choices of subject--the advances in
modern surgery, the discipline of sport, the strains of individuals in tension
with society or even with themselves--was as disturbing to his own time as it
is compelling for ours.
(A) was as disturbing to his own time as it is
(B) were as disturbing to his own time as they are
(C) has been as disturbing in his own time as they are
(D) had been as disturbing in his own time as it was
(E) have been as disturbing in his own time as
Choice B, the best answer, exhibits correct subject-verb agreement and uses
appropriate verb tenses. Choices A, C, and D contain errors of agreement: the
compound subject style and... choices of subject requires a plural verb and
should correspond to the plural pronoun they, not it. Furthermore, C wrongly
shifts to the present perfect tense (has been) to characterize something that
happened in the past, while D uses the past tense was to characterize something
that is happening in the present. In E, while the plural have agrees in number
with the compound subject, the use of the present perfect tense (have been) is
inappropriate for characterizing the effect of Eakins' work in his own time.
41. In a recent poll, 86 percent of the public favored a Clean Air Act as
strong or stronger than the present act.
(A) a Clean Air Act as strong or stronger than
(B) a Clean Air Act that is stronger, or at least so strong as,
(C) at least as strong a Clean Air Act as is
(D) a Clean Air Act as strong or stronger than is
(E) a Clean Air Act at least as strong as
E, the best choice, is concise, clear, and idiomatic. Choices A, B, C, and D may
be faulted for constructions that are cumbersome, unnecessarily wordy, or
unidiomatic. Choices A and D require as strong as instead of as strong.
Similarly, B is missing than after stronger, and so should be as. In C and D, is
should be dropped. Even with revisions, these choices are more wordy and awkward
than the best answer.
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