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We offer a full verbal test, including 10 critical reasoning questions, 16 sentence correction questions, and 15 reading comprehension questions. Also included are answers with complete explanations.

Questions 1- 8 are based on the following passage.

   "I want to criticize the social system,
  and to show it at work, at its most
  intense." Virginia Woolf's provocative
  statement about her intentions in
(5) writing Mrs. Dalloway has regularly been
  ignored by the critics, since it
  highlights an aspect of her literary
  interests very different from the
  traditional picture of the "poetic"
(10) novelist concerned with examining states
  of reverie and vision and with following
  the intricate pathways of individual
  consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a
  realistic as well as a poetic novelist,
(15) a satirist and social critic as well as
  a visionary: literary critics' cavalier
  dismissal of Woolf's social vision will
  not withstand scrutiny.
   In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged
(20) by the questions of how individuals are
  shaped (or deformed) by their social
  environments, how historical forces
  impinge on people's lives, how class,
  wealth, and gender help to determine
(25) people's fates. Most of her novels are
  rooted in a realistically rendered social
  setting and in a precise historical time.
   Woolf's focus on society has not been
  generally recognized because of her
(30) intense antipathy to propaganda in art.
  The pictures of reformers in her novels
  are usually satiric or sharply critical.
  Even when Woolf is fundamentally
  sympathetic to their causes, she portrays
(35) people anxious to reform their society
  and possessed of a message or program
  as arrogant or dishonest, unaware of
  how their political ideas serve their
  own psychological needs. (Her Writer's
(40) Diary notes: "the only honest people
  are the artists," whereas "these social
  reformers and philanthropists...harbor...
  discreditable desires under the disguise
  of loving their kind....") Woolf detested
(45) what she called "preaching" in fiction,
  too, and criticized novelist D.H.Lawrence
  (among others) for working by this method.
   Woolf's own social criticism is
  expressed in the language of observation
(50) rather than in direct commentary, since
  for her, fiction is a contemplative, not
  an active art. She describes phenomena
  and provides materials for a judgment
  about society and social issues; it is
(55) the reader's work to put the observations
  together and understand the coherent
  point of view behind them. As a moralist,
  Woolf works by indirection, subtly under-
  mining officially accepted mores, mocking,
(60) suggesting, calling into question, rather
  than asserting, advocating, bearing
  witness: hers is the satirist's art.
   Woolf's literary models were acute
  social observers like Checkhov and
(65) Chaucer. As she put it in The Common
  Reader. "It is safe to say that not a
  single law has been framed or one stone
  set upon another because of anything
  Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we
(70) read him, we are absorbing morality at
  every pore." Like Chaucer, Woolf chose
  to understand as well as to judge, to
  know her society root and branch-a
  decision curcial in order to produce art
(75) rather than polemic.

1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) Poetry and Satire as Influences on the Novels of Virginia Woolf
(B) Virginia Woolf: Critic and Commentator on the Twentieth-Century Novel
(C) Trends in Contemporary Reform Movements as a Key to Understanding Virginia Woolf's Novels
(D) Society as Allegory for the Individual in the Novels of Virginia Woolf
(E) Virginia Woolf's Novels: Critical Reflections on the Individual and on Society

2. In the first paragraph of the passage, the author's attitude toward the literary critics mentioned can best be described as
(A) disparaging
(B) ironic
(C) factious
(D) skeptical but resigned
(E) disappointed but hopeful

3. It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose Chaucer as a literary model because she believed that
(A) Chaucer was the first English author to focus on society as a whole as well as on individual characters
(B) Chaucer was an honest and forthright author, whereas novelists like D, H, Lawrence did not sincerely wish to change society
(C) Chaucer was more concerned with understanding his society than with calling its accepted mores into question
(D) Chaucer's writing was greatly, if subtly, effective in influencing the moral attitudes of his readers
(E) her own novels would be more widely read if, like Chaucer, she did not overtly and vehemently criticize contemporary society

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the most probable reason Woolf realistically described the social setting in the majority of her novels was that she
(A) was aware that contemporary literary critics considered the novel to be the most realistic of literary genres
(B) was interested in the effect of a person's social milieu on his or her character and actions
(C) needed to be as attentive to detail as possible in her novels in order to support the arguments she advanced in them
(D) wanted to show that a painstaking fidelity in the representation of reality did not in any way hamper the artist
(E) wished to prevent critics from charging that her novels were written in an ambiguous and inexact style

5. Which of the following phrases best expresses the sense of the word "contemplative" as it is used in line 51 of the passage?
(A) Gradually elucidating the rational structures underlying accepted mores
(B) Reflecting on issues in society without prejudice or emotional commitment
(C) Avoiding the aggressive assertion of the author's perspective to the exclusion of the reader's judgment
(D) Conveying a broad view of society as a whole rather than focusing on an isolated individual consciousness
(E) Appreciating the world as the artist sees it rather than judging it in moral terms

6. The author implies that a major element of the satirist's art is the satirist's
(A) consistent adherence to a position of lofty disdain when viewing the foibles of humanity
(B) insistence on the helplessness of individuals against the social forces that seek to determine an individual's fate
(C) cynical disbelief that visionaries can either enlighten or improve their societies
(D) fundamental assumption that some ambiguity must remain in a work of art in order for it to reflect society and social mores accurately
(E) refusal to indulge in polemic when presenting social mores to readers for their scrutiny

7. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Have literary critics ignored the social criticism inherent in the work of Chekhov and Chaucer?
(B) Does the author believe that Woolf is solely an introspective and visionary novelist?
(C) What are the social causes with which Woolf shows herself to be sympathetic in her writings?
(D) Was D. H. Lawrence as concerned as Woolf was with creating realistic settings for his novels?
(E) Does Woolf attribute more power to social environment or to historical forces as shapers of a person's life?

8. One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the potential customerís attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that people know of a product than that they know something about it.
Which of the following is assumed by the argument?
A. People can remember a product without having much information about it.
B. Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve peopleís memories.
C. Attracting a potential customerís attention is a simple matter.
D. The advertising industry knows little of substance about the products it promotes.
E. Advertisements seldom tell the truth about a product.

9. The company announced that its profits declined much less in the second quarter than analysts had expected it to and its business will improve in the second half of the year.
(A) had expected it to and its business will improve
(B) had expected and that its business would improve
(C) expected it would and that it will improve its business
(D) expected them to and its business would improve
(E) expected and that it will have improved its business

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

10. Affirmative action is good business. So asserted the National Association of Manufacturers while urging retention of an executive order requiring some federal contractors to set numerical goals for hiring minorities and women. ďDiversity in work force participation has produced new ideas in management, product development, and marketing,Ē the association claimed.
The associationís argument as it is presented in the passage above would be most strengthened if which of the following were true?
A. The percentage of minority and women workers in business has increased more slowly than many minority and womenís groups would prefer.
B. Those businesses with the highest percentages of minority and women workers are those that have been the most innovative and profitable.
C. Disposable income has been rising as fast among minorities and women as among the population as a whole.
D. The biggest growth in sales in the manufacturing sector has come in industries that market the most innovative products.
E. Recent improvements in management practices have allowed many manufacturers to experience enormous gains in worker productivity.

11. The gyrfalcon, an Arctic bird of prey, has survived a close brush with extinction; its numbers are now five times greater than when the use of DDT was sharply restricted in the early 1970's.
(A) extinction; its numbers are now five times greater than
(B) extinction; its numbers are now five times more than
(C) extinction, their numbers now fivefold what they were
(D) extinction, now with fivefold the numbers they had
(E) extinction, now with numbers five times greater than

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

12. Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the Regionalist party because she supports the bill.
Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is invalidly drawn?
A. Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial interests on several other issues.
B. Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the environment.
C. Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws have failed.
D. It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not oppose the bill for a new recycling law.
E. Ellen has attended programs and distributed literature prepared by the Regionalist party.

13. Three out of every four automobile owners in the United States also own a bicycle.
(A) Three out of every four automobile owners in the United States also own a bicycle.
(B) Out of every four, three automobile owners in the United States also owns a bicycle.
(C) Bicycles are owned by three out of every four owners of automobiles in the United States.
(D) In the United States, three out of every four automobile owners owns bicycles.
(E) Out of every four owners of automobiles in the United States, bicycles are also owned by three.

14. Analysts blamed May's sluggish retail sales on unexciting merchandise as well as the weather, colder and wetter than was usual in some regions. which slowed sales of barbecue grills and lawn furniture.
(A) colder and wetter than was usual in some regions, which slowed
(B) which was colder and wetter than usual in some regions, slowing
(C) since it was colder and wetter than usually in some regions, which slowed
(D) being colder and wetter than usually in some regions, slowing
(E) having been colder and wetter than was usual in some regions and slowed

Questions 15- 18 are based on the following passage.

   It is a popular misconception
  that nuclear fusion power is free
  of radioactivity; in fact, the
  deuterium-tritium reaction that nuclear
(5) scientists are currently exploring with
  such zeal produces both alpha particles
  and neutrons, (The neutrons are used to
  produce tritium from a lithium blanket
  surrounding the reactor.) Another common
(10) misconception is that nuclear fusion
  power is a virtually unlimited source of
  energy because of the enormous quantity
  of deuterium in the sea. Actually, its
  limits are set by the amount of
(15) available lithium, which is about as
  plentiful as uranium in the Earth's
  crust. Research should certainly
  continue on controlled nuclear fusion,but
  no energy program should be premised
(20) on its existence until it has proven
  practical. For the immediate future, we
  must continue to use hydroelectric
  power, nuclear fission, and fossil fuels
  to meet our energy needs. The energy
(25) sources already in major use are in
  major use for good reason.

15. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) criticize scientists who believe that the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction can be made feasible as an energy source
(B) admonish scientists who have failed to correctly calculate the amount of lithium
(C) defend the continued short-term use of fossil fuels as a major energy source
(D) caution against uncritical embrace of nuclear fusion power as a major energy source
(E) correct the misconception that nuclear fusion power is entirely free of radioactivity

16. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about the current state of public awareness concerning nuclear fusion power?
(A) The public has been deliberately misinformed about the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(B) The public is unaware of the principal advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission as an energy source.
(C) The public's awareness of the scientific facts concerning nuclear fusion power is somewhat distorted and incomplete.
(D) The public is not interested in increasing its awareness of the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(E) The public is aware of the disadvantages of nuclear fusion power but not of its advantages.

17. The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions?
(A) What is likely to be the principal source of deuterium for nuclear fusion power?
(B) How much incidental radiation is produced in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction?
(C) Why are scientists exploring the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction with such zeal?
(D) Why must the tritium for nuclear fusion be synthesized from lithium?
(E) Why does the deuterium-tritium reaction yield both alpha particles and neutrons?

18. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear scientists is most directly suggested in the passage?
(A) Nuclear scientists are not themselves aware of all of the facts surrounding the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction.
(B) Nuclear scientists exploring the decuterium-tritium reaction have overlooked key facts in their eagerness to prove nuclear fusion practical.
(C) Nuclear scientists may have overestimated the amount of lithium actually available in the Earth's crust.
(D) Nuclear scientists have not been entirely dispassionate in their investigation of the deuterium-tritium reaction.
(E) Nuclear scientists have insufficiently investigated the lithium-to-tritium reaction in nuclear fusion.

19. Balding is much more common among White males than males of other races.
(A) than
(B) than among
(C) than is so of
(D) compared to
(E) in comparison with

20. The bank holds $3 billion in loans that are seriously delinquent or in such trouble that they do not expect payments when due.
(A) they do not expect payments when
(B) it does not expect payments when it is
(C) it does not expect payments to be made when they are
(D) payments are not to be expected to be paid when
(E) payments are not expected to be paid when they will be

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

21. Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old. It is clear from this example that the last two digits of a personís birth year will be the same as the last two digits of the year of that personís ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be reversed.
Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made?
A. The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do not end in two zeroes.
B. The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed in the generalization based on it.
C. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is one greater than the second-to-last digit.
D. The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of the generalization is already presupposed.
E. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is greater than five.

22. The nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote the only eyewitness account of the great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.
(A) The nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote the only eyewitness account of the great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.
(B) To the historian Tacitus, the nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote two letters, being the only eyewitness accounts of the great eruption of Vesuvius.
(C) The only eyewitness account is in two letters by the nephew of Pliny the Elder writing to the historian Tacitus an account of the great eruption of Vesuvius.
(D) Writing the only eyewitness account, Pliny the Elder's nephew accounted for the great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.
(E) In two letters to the historian Tacitus, the nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote the only eyewitness account of the great eruption of Vesuvius.

23. In A.D. 391. resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria, later generations lost all but the lliad and Odyssey among Greek epics, most of the poetry of Pindar and Sappho, and dozens of plays by Aeschylus and Euripides.
(A) resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria,
(B) the destroying of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria resulted and
(C) because of the result of the destruction of the library at Alexandria, the largest of the ancient world,
(D) as a result of the destruction of the library at Alexandria, the largest of the ancient world,
(E) Alexandria's largest library of the ancient world was destroyed, and the result was

24. Scientists believe that unlike the males of most species of moth, the male whistling moths of Nambung, Australia, call female moths to them by the use of acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and they attract their mates during the day, rather than at night.
(A) by the use of acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and they attract
(B) by the use of acoustical signals instead of using olfactory ones, and attracting
(C) by using acoustical signals, not using olfactory ones, and by attracting
(D) using acoustical signals, rather than olfactory ones, and attract
(E) using acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and attracting

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

25. The state with the greatest fraction of its population in urban areas, if the urban areas are considered to include the suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but California is exceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its population lives in urban areas. Geographically, however, California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban areas.
If all of the statements are true, which of the following is best supported on the basis of them?
A. No state has a smaller fraction of its population in rural areas than California has.
B. The current rate of population growth in Californiaís urban areas exceeds that current rate of population growth in Californiaís rural areas.
C. In California 96 percent of the population lives on 9 percent of the land.
D. No state has a smaller area devoted to urban settlement than California has.
E. Californiaís population density is among the highest of all states in the United States.

26. If the airspace around centrally located airports were restricted to commercial airliners and only those private planes equipped with radar, most of the private-plane traffic would be forced to sue outlying airfields. Such a reduction in the amount of private-plane traffic would reduce the risk of midair collision around the centrally located airports.
The conclusion draw in the first sentence depends on which of the following assumptions?
A. Outlying airfields would be as convenient as centrally located airports for most pilots of private planes.
B. Most outlying airfields are not equipped to handle commercial-airline traffic.
C. Most private planes that use centrally located airports are not equipped with radar.
D. Commercial airliners are at greater risk of becoming involved in midair collisions than are private planes.
E. A reduction in the risk of midair collision would eventually lead to increases in commercial-airline traffic.

27. In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of farmers continued to increase, but at a rate lower than that of the general population.
Which of the following statements directly contradicts the information presented above?
A. The number of farmers in the general population increased slightly in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
B. The rate of growth of the United States labor force and the rate of growth of the general population rose simultaneously in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
C. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force remained constant in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
D. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force decreased from 64 percent in 1850 to 49 percent in 1880.
E. The proportion of farmers in the general population increased from 68 percent in 1850 to 72 percent in 1880.

28. The British sociologist and activist Barbara Wootton once noted as a humorous example of income maldistribution that the elephant that gave rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo was earning annually exactly what she then earned as director of adult education for London.
(A) that the elephant that gave rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo was earning
(B) that the elephant, giving rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo, had been earning
(C) that there was an elephant giving rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo, and it earned
(D) the elephant that gave rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo and was earning
(E) the elephant giving rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo and that it earned

29. Five fledgling sea eagles left their nests in western Scotland this summer, bringing to 34 the number of wild birds successfully raised since transplants from Norway began in 1975.
(A) bringing
(B) and brings
(C) and it brings
(D) and it brought
(E) and brought

30. According to some economists, the July decrease in unemployment so that it was the lowest in two years suggests that the gradual improvement in the job market is continuing.
(A) so that it was the lowest in two years
(B) so that it was the lowest two-year rate
(C) to what would be the lowest in two years
(D) to a two-year low level
(E) to the lowest level in two years

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

31. The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax returns showing a net income of more than $ 100 million accounted for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources came from the 200 returns reporting income from 10 or more countries.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
A. Most of the total taxable income earned by corporations with net income above $ 100 million was earned from foreign sources.
B. Wealthy individuals with large personal incomes reported 47 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources.
C. Income from foreign sources amounted to between 53 and 60 percent of all reported taxable income.
D. Some of the corporations with net income above $ 100 million reported income from 10 or more countries.
E. Most of the tax returns showing income from 10 or more countries reported net income of more than $ 100 million.

Questions 32- 34 are based on the following passage.

   Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong.
  Jacksonian America was not a fluid,
  egalitarian society where individual
  wealth and poverty were ephemeral
(5) conditions. At least to argues E. Pessen
  in his iconoclastic study of the very
  rich in the United States between 1825
  and 1850.
   Pessen does present a quantity of
(10) examples, together with some
  refreshingly intelligible statistics, to
  establish the existence of an
  inordinately wealthy class. Though
  active in commerce or the professions,
(15) most of the wealthy were not self-made,
  but had inherited family fortunes. In no
  sense mercurial, these great fortunes
  survived the financial panics that
  destroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in
(20) several cities the wealthiest one
  percent constantly increased its share
  until by 1850 it owned half of the
  community's wealth. Although these
  observations are true, Pessen
(25) overestimates their importance by
  concluding from them that the undoubted
  progress toward inequality in the late
  eighteenth century continued in the
  Jacksonian period and that the United
(30) States was a class-ridden, plutocratic
  society even before industrialization.


32. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the following were true of the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT:
(A) They formed a distinct upper class.
(B) Many of them were able to increase their holdings.
(C) Some of them worked as professionals or in business.
(D) Most of them accumulated their own fortunes.
(E) Many of them retained their wealth in spite of financial upheavals.

33.The author's attitude toward Pessen's presentation of statistics can be best described as
(A) disapproving
(B) shocked
(C) suspicious
(D) amused
(E) laudatory

34. Which of the following best states the author's main point?
(A) Pessen's study has overturned the previously established view of the social and economic structure of early nineteenth-century America.
(B) Tocqueville's analysis of the United States in the Jacksonian era remains the definitive account of this period.
(C) Pessen's study is valuable primarily because it shows the continuity of the social system in the United States throughout the nineteenth century.
(D) The social patterns and political power of the extremely wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 are well documented.
(E) Pessen challenges a view of the social and economic system in the United States from 1825 to 1850, but he draws conclusions that are incorrect.

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

35. The greater the division of labor in an economy, the greater the need for coordination. This is because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers, which results in a greater burden on managers and, potentially, in a greater number of disruptions of supply and production.
There is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies.
If all of the statements given are true, the which of the following must also be true?
A. Disruptions of supply and production are more frequent in planned economies than in market economies.
B. There are more specialized producers in planned economies than in market economies.
C. The need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies.
D. A managerís task is easier in a market economy than in a planned economy.
E. Division of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned economies.

36. Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop.
(A) Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has
(B) Having been a United States citizen since 1988, she was born in Calcutta in 1940; author Bharati Mukherjee
(C) Born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee became a United States citizen in 1988; she has
(D) Being born in Calcutta in 1940 and having been a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee
(E) Having been born in Calcutta in 1940 and being a United States citizen since 1988, author Bharati Mukherjee

37. Initiated five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992. Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.
(A) Initiated five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992, Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.
(B) Initiated on Columbus Day 1992, five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World, a $100 million investment in the search for -extraterrestrial intelligence was pledged by Project SETI.
(C) Initiated on Columbus Day 1992, five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World, Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.
(D) Pledging a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence, the . initiation of Project SETI five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992.
(E) Pledging a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World, on Columbus Day 1992, the initiation of Project SETI took place.

Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning)

38. The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar system. The Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them suitable abodes of life.
The statement presupposes which of the following?
A. Living creatures on another planet would probably have the same appearance as those on Earth.
B. Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system.
C. If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an inevitable consequence.
D. More than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like planet.
E. It is likely that life on another planet would require conditions similar to those on Earth.

39. The direction in which the Earth and the other solid planets --Mercury, Venus, and Mars -- spins were determined from collisions with giant celestial bodies in the early history of the Solar System.
(A) spins were determined from
(B) spins were determined because of
(C) spins was determined through
(D) spin was determined by
(E) spin was determined as a result of

40. Thomas Eakins' powerful style and his choices of subject--the advances in modern surgery, the discipline of sport, the strains of individuals in tension with society or even with themselves--was as disturbing to his own time as it is compel≠ling for ours.
(A) was as disturbing to his own time as it is
(B) were as disturbing to his own time as they are
(C) has been as disturbing in his own time as they are
(D) had been as disturbing in his own time as it was
(E) have been as disturbing in his own time as

41. In a recent poll, 86 percent of the public favored a Clean Air Act as strong or stronger than the present act.
(A) a Clean Air Act as strong or stronger than
(B) a Clean Air Act that is stronger, or at least so strong as,
(C) at least as strong a Clean Air Act as is
(D) a Clean Air Act as strong or stronger than is
(E) a Clean Air Act at least as strong as


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